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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q112-Q117):
NEW QUESTION # 112
You are seeing a 78-year-old man for follow-up of metastatic cholangiocarcinoma diagnosed 8 months ago and currently being treated with thermotherapy. He has just completed his 2nd cycle and reports frequently feeling hopeless, worthless, and helpless, with no sense of a positive future. He states he is turning away invitations to socialize with family and friends. He feels like sleeping all the time and reports no appetite.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Brain metastasis
- B. Major depressive episode
- C. Side effects of chemotherapy
- D. Normal grief reaction
- E. Hepatic encephalopathy
Answer: B
Explanation:
This patient exhibits classic symptoms of a major depressive episode (MDE): anhedonia, low mood, social withdrawal, feelings of worthlessness, hypersomnia, and loss of appetite. These symptoms are persistent and pervasive beyond what is typical in grief.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, "Depressive Disorders" Section:
"MDE is characterized by #5 symptoms present nearly every day for #2 weeks including low mood, anhedonia, sleep/appetite disturbances, low energy, feelings of worthlessness, and suicidal ideation. It must cause significant impairment in functioning." MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):
"Candidates must distinguish between grief, adjustment disorders, and major depression in patients with chronic illness and initiate appropriate management." Normal grief (A) may involve sadness and crying but does not involve pervasive hopelessness or worthlessness. Side effects of chemotherapy (C) and hepatic encephalopathy (E) have other specific physical signs. Brain metastasis (D) would more likely present with focal neurologic symptoms or cognitive impairment.
NEW QUESTION # 113
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her boyfriend, who says that she is experiencing a fentanyl overdose. She is unresponsive and cyanotic. She regains consciousness after naloxone is injected intravenously and demonstrates no further respiratory depression during 8 hours of observation.
She states that she is 22 weeks' pregnant and wants to stop using opioids. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Refer the patient for opioid use disorder counselling
- B. Admit the patient for medically supervised detoxification
- C. Prescribe medications for symptom control so that the patient can detoxify at home
- D. Refer the patient for initiation of methadone
Answer: D
Explanation:
For pregnant patients with opioid use disorder, opioid agonist therapy with methadone or buprenorphine is the standard of care. Detoxification is not recommended in pregnancy due to increased risk of fetal distress, preterm labor, and relapse. Methadone reduces illicit opioid use and stabilizes both mother and fetus.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine / Obstetrics:
"Methadone maintenance therapy is the treatment of choice for pregnant patients with opioid use disorder.
Detoxification is not advised during pregnancy due to relapse risk and potential harm to the fetus." MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Substance Use in Pregnancy):
"Candidates must manage opioid use disorder in pregnancy with evidence-based therapies, including referral for methadone or buprenorphine." Counselling alone (D) is insufficient as first-line therapy. Home detox (C) is unsafe. Inpatient detox (A) is not recommended in pregnancy.
NEW QUESTION # 114
You are the emergency physician on duty in a rural hospital when heavy rains in the community cause a large landslide. There are multiple casualties expected to arrive in the emergency department. Your colleague has heard about the incident and arrives to help. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Send your colleague to the affected area to evaluate the health risks involved
- B. Send your colleague to set up an emergency type O blood bank collecting unit
- C. Ask your colleague to handle media inquiries
- D. Ask your colleague to help triage incoming patients in the emergency department
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
During mass casualty incidents, effective triage is essential to optimize care delivery. A trained physician is best used in triage or direct care. Triage is the foundation of disaster management.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Public Health / Disaster Medicine:
"In disaster response, trained healthcare providers should be deployed to triage and stabilize patients in emergency departments." MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-1: Disaster Response):
"Candidates must understand principles of mass casualty management and assign appropriate roles during triage and care delivery." Media (D) and logistics (A, C) are secondary roles. Triage and direct care take priority.
NEW QUESTION # 115
You are asked to see a 50-year-old man 2 hours after he underwent a laparotomy for gastric resection. Lab results are as follows:
pH
7.28 (7.35-7.45)
PaCO#
60 mm Hg (35-40)
PaO#
60 mm Hg (85-105) with 4 L/min via nasal prongs
Bicarbonate (HCO#)
24 mmol/L (24-30)
Which one of the following is most consistent with this clinical presentation?
- A. Postoperative hypermetabolic period
- B. Normal recovery from an inhalation anesthetic
- C. Respiratory insufficiency
- D. Metabolic acidosis
- E. Compensatory respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C
Explanation:
This ABG reveals primary respiratory acidosis (#pH, #PaCO#, normal HCO#), likely from hypoventilation due to postoperative pain, sedation, or narcotics. PaO# is also low, suggesting inadequate oxygenation.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Respiratory, "Postoperative Respiratory Complications":
"Postoperative respiratory acidosis results from hypoventilation, often due to pain, sedatives, or poor respiratory effort. Assess airway, breathing, and support oxygenation." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 44-3: Acid-Base Disturbances):
"Candidates must recognize respiratory acidosis on ABG and relate findings to common postoperative complications." Metabolic acidosis (C) would show #HCO#. Compensated alkalosis (D) would show opposite ABG changes.
Hypermetabolic states increase respiratory drive, not decrease it.
NEW QUESTION # 116
A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding his anxiety. He lost his job 1 year ago.
Since then, he constantly thinks about what happened, trying to understand what went wrong and how he could fix it or prevent it in the future. He is unable to sleep because of this. He has become socially isolated and when he does see friends, he worries constantly that he may say something hurtful. He wishes he could get past what happened and find another job but feels consumed by the fear that he may offend someone in the future. On history, his symptoms did not respond to escitalopram, sertraline, fluvoxamine, or venlafaxine, all at maximum tolerated doses. Which one of the following medications is the most appropriate?
- A. Quetiapine
- B. Amitriptyline
- C. Vortioxetine
- D. Paroxetine
- E. Clomipramine
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient likely has treatment-resistant obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), with classicsymptoms of rumination, excessive guilt, and fear of causing harm. Clomipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant with strong serotonergic activity, is effective in treatment-resistant OCD and is often used after failure of multiple SSRIs or SNRIs.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Psychiatry, OCD:
"Clomipramine is a first-line tricyclic antidepressant for OCD, particularly after failed SSRI/SNRI trials. It is effective due to potent serotonergic action." MCCQE1 Objectives - Psychiatry > OCD and Anxiety Disorders:
"Candidates must identify treatment strategies for resistant OCD, including the role of clomipramine and augmentation therapy." Quetiapine (C) may be used as augmentation. Paroxetine (E) is another SSRI. Vortioxetine (A) and amitriptyline (D) are not first-line or preferred for OCD.
NEW QUESTION # 117
......
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